Let \(f(x) = \begin{cases} k(x) &\text{if }x>0, \\ -\frac1{2x}&\text{if }x< 0\\ 0&\text{if }x=0. \end{cases} \)Find the function \(k(x)\) such that \(f(x) \) is its own inverse function.

Jmaster10 Nov 1, 2021

#1**0 **

The last time I gave you a big answer and you did not respond in any way.

https://web2.0calc.com/questions/math-help-pls_12

Do you think that this would encourage me to answer you now?

Melody Nov 1, 2021

#3**+1 **

You respond to my criticism politely with words, but you add a thumbs down. Good one.

So you know how to give thumbs down, thumbs up must be more difficult.

Oh I am sorry, I can see that you know how to give yourself a thumbs up. The button must work after all.

You really are out to encourage help.

Melody Nov 1, 2021